I probably shouldnt ask such a question but even if I could read it I probably wouldnt understand what was said but here goes;

If we have 2400 patients

1200 on sugar pills

600 on 208 + lipitor

600 0n 208 + crestor,

How will the RRR% be calculated at end of trial? It is assumed the placebo group will be ruffly at the predetermined numbers of events. While the other two arms might have data vastly apart! Do we have to average the RRR% due to FDA protocol?? etc,,, I assume it is a dumb question but I can take any abuse offered! yep ,, I can!